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SSC Graduate Level Exam Numerical Aptitude Previous Year Paper

April 10th, 2012

1. The ratio of the income to the expenditure of a family is 10 : 7. If the family expenses are
Rs. 10,500, then the savings of the family is
(A) Rs. 4,500 (B) Rs. 10,000
(C) Rs. 4,000 (D) Rs. 5,000

2. The average mathematics marks of two Sections A and B of Class IX in the annual examination is 74. The average marks of SectionA is 77.5 and that of Section B is 70. The ratio of the number of students of SectionsA and B is
(A) 7 : 8 (B) 7 : 5
(C) 8 : 7 (D) 8 : 5

3. The average weight of a group of 20 boys was calculated to be 89.4 kg and it was later discovered that oneweightwasmisread as 78 kg instead of 87 kg. The correct average weight is
(A) 88.95 kg (B) 89.25 kg
(C) 89.55 kg (D) 89.85 kg

4.The diameter of awheel is 98 cmdominor of revolutions in which it will to cover a distance of 1540 mis
(A) 500 (B) 600
(C) 700 (D) 800

Ssc Cgl 2011 Numerical Aptitude Paper Held on 19-06-2011

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Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level Exam General Awareness Solved Paper

April 9th, 2012

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL TIER 1 GENERAL AWARENESS PAPER HELD ON 26-06-2011

GENERAL AWARENESS
51. Lambert’s law is related to
(A) Reflection (B) Refraction
(C) Interference (D) Illumination

52. The coral reefs are the marine counterparts of
(A) Temperate forest
(B) Tropical rain forests
(C) Savannahs (D) Scrubland
53. The Refrigerant ‘FREON’ is
(A) Calcium Tetra Fluoride
(B) Difluoro Dichloro Methane
(C) Fluorspar and Felspar
(D) Hydrofluosilicic acid

54. In the budget speech on February 28, 2011, the Finance Minister has announced that an international award with prize money of Rs. 1 crore is being instituted in the memory of Rabindranath Tagore for promoting
(A) international peace
(B) emancipation of underprivileged
(C) universal brotherhood
(D) human rights

55. The strong earthquake-cum-tsunami which has moved Japan’s main island Honshu by a few feet has also caused Earth’s axis to wobble by about
(A) 1 inch (B) 2 inch
(C) 4 inch (D) 6 inch

56. WILILEAKS, a whistleblowers website is an international organisation based in
(A) U.S.A. (B) U.K.
(C) Sweden (D) Norway

57. ‘Nomadic Elephant’ was the joint military exercise held some time back in India between India and
(A) China (B) U.S.A.
(C) Russia (D) Mongolia

58. The maximum limit on poll expenditure for parliamentary constituencies has been raised in February, 2011 to
(A) 30 lacks (B) 35 lacks
(C) 40 lacks (D) 50 lacks

59. Who received Sangeet Natak Akademi’s Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar for Dance in 2009?
(A) Omkar Shrikant Dadarkar
(B) Ragini Chander Sarkar
(C) Abanti Chakravotry and Sukracharya Rabha
(D) K. Nellai Manikandan

60. Which of the following folk dances is associated with Jammu and Kashmir?
(A) Jhora (B) Veedhi
(C) Rauf (D) Suisini

61. Which of the following books has been written by Kamala Das?
(A) Witness the Night
(B) The Red Devil
(C) Earth and Ashes
(D) Tonight This Savage Rite

62. Who invented the Jet Engine?
(A) Karl Benz (B) Sir Frank Whittle
(C) Thomas Savery
(D) Michael Faraday

63. South-South dialogue is associated with
(A) Co-operation among developing nations
(B) Arms conference
(C) Summit meeting between developed and developing countries
(D) All the above

64. The reserve held by Commercial Banks over and above the statutory minimum, with the RBI are called
(A) Cast reserves (B) Deposit reserves
(C) Excess reserves
(D) Momentary reserves

65. Who is authorized to issue coins in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Ministry of Finance
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Indian Overseas Bank

66. Which four countries are called the Asian Tigers?
(A) Hong Kong, Singapore, South Korea, Taiwan
(B) Hong Kong, China, Singapore, Taiwan
(C) Hong Kong, Malaysia, Singapore, China
(D) Hong Kong, South Korea, China, Taiwan

67. In the Budget Estimates for 2011-12, an allocation of Rs. 300 crore has been made for promoting output of pulses in 60,000 villages in rainfed areas with a view to attaining self sufficiency in pulse in a period of
(A) two years (B) three years
(C) four years (D) five years

68. In the budget for 2011-12 presented by the Finance Minister on 28-2-2011, the growth rate for the year 2010-11 was projected at
(A) 7.6% (B) 8.0%
(C) 8.6% (D) 9.0%

69. The ‘break-even’ points where
(A) marginal revenue equals marginal cost
(B) average revenue equals average cost
(C) total revenue equals total cost
(D) none of the above

70. The method of Impeachment of the President of India is adopted from
(A) U.S.A. (B) U.K.
(C) U.S.S.R. (D) France

71. In the English Schedule of the Constitution of India, which languages were added subsequently?
(A) English, Sindhi, Marathi, Sanskrit
(B) Sanskrit, Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri
(C) Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali
(D) Marathi, Oriya, Konkani, Nepali

72. Indian Parliament Means
(A) Rajya Sabha – Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha – Lok Sabha – Prime Minister
(C) President of India – Rajya Sabha – Lok Sabha
(D) President of India – Vise President of India – Lok Sabha – Rajya Sabha

73. Generally the soil of the northern plains of India has been formed by
(A) degradation
(B) aggradation
(C) weathering in situ
(D) erosion

74. Hiuen Tsang visited India during the reign of
(A) Chandragupta I (B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harshavardhana
(D) Rudradaman

75. The Muslim adventurer who destroyed the Nalanda University was
(A) Alla-ud-din Khilji
(B) Muhammad-bin-Tughlak
(C) Muhammad-bin-Bhaktiyar
(D) Muhammad-bin-Quasim

76. Painting reached its highest level of development during the region of
(A) Akbar (B) Aurangzeb
(C) Jahangir (D) Shah Jahan

77. The communal electorate was introduced for the first time in India in
(A) 1919 (B) 1935
(C) 1906 (D) 1909

78. The two states which and had non-Congress Ministries in 1937 were
(A) Bengal and Punjab
(B) Punjab and NWEP
(C) Madras and Central Provinces
(D) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh

79. Sea breeze is formed during
(A) Day time (B) Night time
(C) Both (D) Seasonal

80. What percentage of word’s freshwater is stored as glacial ice?
(A) 50% (B) 10%
(C) 70% (D) 30%

81. Which one of the following rivers of India does not make a delta?
(A) Ganges (B) Godavari
(C) Mahanandi (D) Tapti

82. Which one of the following state has the longest coastline?
(A) Maharashtra (B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Gujarat (D) Andhra Pradesh

83. The pass located in Himanchal Pradesh is
(A) Shipkila (B) Zojila
(C) Nathula (D) Jelepla

84. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below: Crops Producing state
(a) Tea (1) Himanchal Pradesh
(b) Sugarcane (2) Assam
(c) Groundnut (3) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Apple (4) Gujarat
(A) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
(B) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
(C) a-3, b-2,c-1, d-4
(D) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

85. An example of false fruit is
(A) Apple (B) Guava
(C) Mango (D) Tomato

86. Normal fasting blood sugar level per 100 ml. of blood in man is
(A) 30 – 50 mg (B) 50 – 70 mg
(C) 80 – 100 mg (D) 120 – 140 mg

87. Rate of interest is determined by
(A) The rate of return of the capital invested
(B) Central Government
(C) Liquidity preference
(D) Commercial Banks

88. The vector of disease sleeping sickness is
(A) sand-fly (B) house-fly
(C) fruit-fly (D) tse-tse fly

89. For how many years have the dinosaurs been extinct?
(A) About 25 million years
(B) About 65 million years
(C) About 100 million years
(D) About 135 million years

90. A geostationary statellite revolves round the earth from
(A) East to West
(B) West to East
(C) North to South
(D) South to North

91. Among the following materials sound travels fastest in
(A) Steel (B) Air
(C) Vacuum (D) Water

92. The rear side of the moon was photographed by
(A) Viking I
(B) Viking II
(C) Luna III
(D) Mariner IX

93. Which phenomenon do bats or dolphins use to find prey, predators or obstacles?
(A) Refraction of sound
(B) Formation of beats
(C) Scattering of sound
(D) Echo location

94. What did the first electronic digital computer contain?
(A) Transistors (B) Valves
(C) Core memory
(D) Semiconductor memory

95. Microsoft Office’s personal information manager is
(A) Outlook (B) Internet Explorer
(C) Organizer (D) Access

96. Hard steel contains
(A) 2 to 5 per cent carbon
(B) 0.5 to 1.5 per cent carbon
(C) 0.1 to 0.4 per cent carbon
(D) 0.01 to 0.04 per cent carbon

97. Cement is formed by strongly heating a mixture of
(A) limestone and graphite
(B) limestone and clay
(C) chalk and graphite
(D) clay and graphite

98. Glass is a
(A) superheated solid
(B) superheated liquid
(C) supercooled gas
(D) superheated liquid

99. The temperature of oxy-acetylene flame is around
(A) 2800oC (B) 3200oC
(C) 4000oC (D) 1500oC

100. Which is the most stable eco-system?
(A) Desert (B) Ocean
(C) Mountain (D) Forest

Answers:
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (c) 61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (a) 71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (c) 81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (b) 91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (a)

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SSC Graduate Level Exam General Intelligence and Reasoning Solved Paper

April 9th, 2012

SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING SOLVED PAPER Held on 26-06-2011

1. There are three baskets of fruits. First basket has twice the number of fruits in the 2nd basket. Third basket has 3/4 th of the fruits in the first. The average of the fruits in all the baskets is 30.What is the number of fruits in the first basket?
(A) 20 (B) 30
(C) 35 (D) 40

2. From my house I walked 5 km towards North. I turned right and walked 3 km. Again Iwent one kmto the south.How far amI frommy house?
(A) 7km (B) 6km
(C) 4km (D) 5km

3. Aand B are standing as a distance of 20km fromeach other ona straight East-West road. A and B start walking simultaneously eastwards andwestwards respectively and both cover a distance of 5 km. ThenA turns to his left the walks 10 km. B turns to his right and walks 10 km at the same speed. Then both turn to their left and cover a distance of 5 km at the same speed. What will be distance between them?
(A) 10km (B) 30km
(C) 20km (D) 25km

4. Fromthe givenalternativewords, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the givenword: REFORMATION
(A) REFRAIN (B) MOTION
(C) REFRACT (D) FORMAT

Directions: From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.
5. MANUFACTURE
(A) FRACTURE (B) MANNER
(C) MATTER (D) FACE

6. If in a certain language, PLAYER is coded as QNDCJX, then how SINGER will be coded in the same language?
(A) TKQKJX (B) TKJKQX
(C) TKQKXJ (D) TKQXJK

7. If in a certain code, 95789 is written as EGKPT and 2436 is written as ALUR, the how will 24539 bewritten in that code?
(A) ALEUT (B) ALGTU
(C) ALGUT (D) ALGRT

8. A statement is given followed by four
alternative arguments. Select on which is
most appropriate.
Statement : White clothes are
women more often is
summer because
(A) they are thin and cool
(B) they are bad absorbers of heat
(C) they can be easily washed
(D) they are easily available in summer

Directions: In question nos. 9 to 17, select the related letter/word/number/figure from the given alternatives.
9. Procession : Route : : Earth : ?
(A) Space (B) Sun
(C) Orbit (D) Highway

10. FERTILIZER : CROPS : : ?
(A) TEACHER: EDUCATION
(B) CHLORINE :WATER
(C) TONIC: BODY
(D) PESTICIDE : RATS

11. LOCKER: KMNPBDJLDFQS : : LEFT : ?
(A) KNCDSGSU (B) KMDFEGSU
(C) KMDFEGUS (D) KMDEFGUS

12. YWUS : BDFH: :WUSQ: ?
(A) DFHJ (B) FHJL
(C) JLNP (D) RTVX
13. ADCB : KNML : : EHGF : ?
(A) DGFE (B) RUST
(C) QRST (D) ZYXW

14. BCDF : GHIK: : LMNP : ?
(A) QRST (B) QRTS
(C) QRSU (D) QRSV

15. IC: 6 : : DP : ?
(A) 14 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 16

16. ABCD:WXYZ : : EFGH: ?
(A) STUV (B) ZYXW
(C) VUTS (D)WXZY

17. 83 : 25 : : 29 : ?
(A) 44 (B) 49
(C) 40 (D) 63

Directions: In question nos. 18 to 22, find the odd number/letters/figures/number pair from the given alternatives

18. (A) Ladder
(B) Staircase
(C) Bridge
(D) Escalator

19. (A) Talking (B) Walking
(C) Sleeping (D) Running

20. (A) DWHS (B) BYDW
(C) CWFS (D) EVJQ

21. (A) DHLP (B) TXBF
(C) JNRV (D) YBEH

22. (A) 1 (B) 65
(C) 8 (D) 64

23. Find the number thatdoes not belong to the group of number for lack of common property.
(A) 945 (B) 625
(C) 743 (D) 853

24. Findout the set of numbers amongst the four sets of numbers given in the alternatives which is mot like the set given in the question. Given set: (8, 56, 72)
(A) (7, 56, 63) (B) (3, 15, 24)
(C) (6, 42, 54) (D) (5, 30, 35)

25. In the following question, number of letters are skipped in between by a particular rule.Which of the following series observes the rule?
(A) AEJOTY (B) AFKPUZ
(C) AFKPTY (D) AEINRV

26. Insert the correctmissing number fromthe choices given below:

2 cm 7 cm 9 cm 18 cm 36 cm 72 cm

157 150 141 123 87 ?

(A) 36 (B) 15
(C) 51 (D) 69

Directions: Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.
27. 1. Noble 2. Nobilitary
3. Noblesse 4. Nobility
5. Nobble
(A) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 (B) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
(C) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 (D) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1

28. Whichone of set of letterswhensequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?
an _ nn _ ana _ na _ nan _ a
(A) Annan (B) Aanan
(C) Nanna (D) Naana

Directions: In question nos. 29 to 33, a series is given with one/two term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
29. MNOABCPQRDEFST ??
(A) GK (B) UV
(C) GH (D) UG

30. 5 9 ? = 84
8 6 4 = 56 7 3 7 = 70
(A) 4 (B) 7
(C) 5 (D) 6

31. 9, 8, 10, 16, 11, ? 12, 64
(A) 28 (B) 36
(C) 25 (D) 32

32. 34, 18, 10, ?
(A) 8 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 6

33. Find the wrong number in the series.
7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 342
(A) 28 (B) 63
(C) 124 (D) 342

34. In a class Rajan got the 11th rank and he was 31st fromthe bottomof the list of boys passed. Three boys did not take the examination and one failed.What is the total strength of the class?
(A) 32 (B) 42
(C) 45 (D) 46

35. In a family, mother’s age is twice that of daughter’s age. Father is 10 years older than mother.Brother is 20 years younger thanhis mother and 5 years older than his sister. What is the age of the father?
(A) 62 years (B) 60 years
(C) 58 years (D) 55 years

36. Rahul and Robin are brothers. Pramod is Robin’s father. Sheela is Pramod’s sister. Prema is Pramod’s niece. Shubha is Sheela’s granddaughter. How is Rahul related to Shubha?
(A) Brother (B) Cousin
(C) Uncle (D) Nephew

37. In a survey of a town, itwas found that 65% of the people surveyed watch the news on T.V., 40%read a newspaper and 25%read a newspaper and watch the news on T.V. Whatper cent of thepeople surveyed neither watch the news on T.V. nor read a newspaper?
(A) 5% (B) 10%
(C) 20% (D) 15%

38. In the year 1996, the Republic Day was celebrated of Friday.Onwhich daywas the Independence Day celebrated in the year 2000?
(A) Tuesday (B) Monday
(C) Friday (D) Saturday

39. Mr. and Mrs. Gopal have 3 daughters and each daughter has one brother. Howmany persons are there in the family?
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8

40. In Ravi’s clock shop, two clocks were brought for repairs.One clockhas the cuckoo comingout every sixteenminutes,while the other one has the cuckoo coming out every eighteenminutes. Bothcuckoos come out at 12.00 noon.Whenwill they both come out together again?
(A) 2.06PM (B) 2.08PM
(C) 2.24PM (D) 2.32PM

Directions: In question nos. 41 and 42, select the missing number fromthe given responses.
41.

169 64 81 30

625 ? 49 50

1296 576 100 70

(A) 324 (B) 289
(C) 441 (D) 361

42.

1 2 3

4 5 6

7 8 9

27 28 ?

(A) 49 (B) 50
(C) 51 (D) 52

43. The number of road accidents in a city is increasingmonth bymonth as given below. Find out of the number of accidents in the month of June.

No. of Month Jan Feb March April May June

accidents 4 8 16 28 44 ?

(A) 64 (B) 48
(C) 52 (D) 40

44. If ‘×’means ‘addition’, ‘–‘ means ‘division’, ‘÷’ means ‘subtraction’ and ‘+’ means ‘multiplication’, thenwhich of the following equations is correct?
(A) 16 + 5 – 10 × 4 ÷ 3 = 9
(B) 16 – 5 × 10 ÷ 4 + 3 = 12
(C) 16 + 5 ÷ 10 × 4 – 3 = 9
(D) 16 × 5 ÷ 10 ÷ 4 – 3 =19

45. A man starts from a point, walks 8 km towardsNorth, turns right andwalks 12 km, turns left and walks 7 km, turns and walks 24 kmtowards South, turns right and walks 12 km. In which direction is he from the starting point?
(A) North (B) South
(C) West (D) East

46. Which diagram correctly represents the relationship between Human beings, Teachers, Graduates?

47. Howmany triangles are there in the given figures?


(A) 29 (B) 38
(C) 40 (D) 35

Directions: Fromthe given answer figures, select the one inwhich the question figures is hidden/ embedded.
48. Question figure.

Directions: In a mirror is placed on the lineMN, the which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
49. Question figure

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SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam English Comprehension Paper Held on 19-06-2011

April 9th, 2012

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL TIER 1 EXAMINATION PART D ENGLISH COMPREHENSION PAPER HELD ON 19-06-2011

PART—D ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

Directions: In Question Nos. 151 to 155, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

151. (A) qestalt (B) imbrolios
(C) ampasse (D) recondite

152. (A) hindrance (B) corespondence
(C) insurence (D) assurence

153. (A) adversery (B) adultary
(C) advisory (D) arbitary

154. (A) rogen (B) colleague
(C) diluge (D) alege

155. (A) malignant (B) impertinant
(C) independant (D) neglegent

Directions: In the following passage (156 to 165), some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given Mark your answer in the Answer-Sheet.

PASSAGE (Q. NOS. 156-165)
Almost every full moon night, the officials in Andaman and Nicobar Islands take part in cautions ritual. The tribesmen watch from a safe distance as the officials 156 the island in a boat 157 gifts for them. The islanders come 158 hesitantly only after the officials 159 dumped the coconuts brought 160 them onto the beach and begin 161 away from their small island. On some nights the tribals even 162 up enough courage to swim upto a few feet 163 from the boat. The officials maintain that they do 164 want to interfere with the way of life of the tribals. The islands 165 heavily on the mainland for most goods.

156. (A) approach (B) depart
(C) present (D) absent

157. (A) coming (B) leaving
(C) carrying (D) relieving

158. (A) forward (B) backward
(C) sides (D) upward

159. (A) has (B) have
(C) had (D) be

160. (A) by (B) to
(C) in (D) for

161. (A) watching (B) seeing
(C) sailing (D) stopping

162. (A) leave (B) muster
(C) come (D) present

163. (A) correctly (B) distantly
(C) near (D) away

164. (A) no (B) neither
(C) not (D) nor

165. (A) spy (B) rely
(C) occupy (D) reply

Directions: In Question Nos. 166 to 170, some of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from errors, blacken the rectangle corresponding to (D) in the Answer Sheet.

166. A great many student / have been declared / successful. / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D

167. We are going to launch / this three cross project / within the next few months. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)
168. I hope to go to shopping / this weekend / if the weather permits. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)
169. The lawyer asked / if it was worth to take / the matter to court. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)
170. After a carefully investigation / we discovered / that the house was infested with termites. /
(A) (B) (C) No error (D)

Directions: In question Nos. 171 to 175, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

171. The company let me _____ time of work.
(A) take (B) taking
(C) to take (D) took

172. I assume ____ with me.
(A) every one agreeing
(B) that every one agrees
(C) every one to agree
(D) that every one to agree

173. _____ the rain forests is very important, if we do not want the flora and fauna found there to become extinct.
(A) Reserving (B) Destroying
(C) Preserving (D) Maintaining

174. If I had helped him, he _______
(A) will not be drowned
(B) would not be drowned
(C) will not have drowned
(D) would not have drowned

175.When will you hand _____ your assignment?
(A) in (B) back
(C) down (D) into

Directions: In Question Nos. 176 to 180, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which bestexpresses the meaning of the given word an mark it in the Answer Sheet.
176. Barren
(A) good (B) wholesome
(C) unproductive (D) profitable

177. Infamy
(A) notoriety (B) glory
(C) integrity (D) familiarity

178. Intrepid
(A) hesitant (B) fearless
(C) extrovert (D) rash

179. Prodigal
(A) exclusive (B) productive
(C) lavish (D) carefree

Directions: In Question Nos. 181 to 185, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
181. Liberty
(A) serenity (B) slavery
(C) serfdom (D) subordination

182. Disorderly
(A) chaotic (B) organized
(C) adjusted (D) arranged

183. Elevation
(A) reduction (B) humiliation
(C) depression (D) debasement

184. Glossy
(A) dull (B) shining
(C) weary (D) tired

185. Appropriate
(A) dissimilar (B) incomparable
(C) unsuitable (D) disparate

Directions: In Question Nos. 186 to 190, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Book.

186. a damps squib
(A) rainy weather
(B) a disappointing result
(C) a skirt in a laundry
(D) none of the above

187. in cold blood
(A) angrily (B) deliberately
(C) excitedly (D) slowly

188. to take someone for a ride
(A) to give a ride to someone
(B) to deceive someone
(C) to be indifferent
(D) to disclose a secret

189. to move heaven and earth
(A) to cause an earthquake
(B) to try everything possible
(C) to pray to all Gods
(D) to travel in a rocket

190. to smell in rat
(A) to smell foul (B) to see a rat
(C) to chase a rat (D) to be suspicious

Directions: In Question Nos. 191 to 195, a sentence is given which / a part of which may need improvement. Alternatives are given at (A), (B) and (C) below which may be a better option. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D) Blacken the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

191.What do you for go to school?
(A) For what do you go to school?
(B) What do you go for to school?
(C) What do you go to school for?
(D) No improvement.

192. He pleased the directors and this completed his report in good time.
(A) He pleased the directors in good time and this completed his report.
(B) He completed his report in good time and this pleased the directors.
(C) He pleased the directors and completed his report and this in good time.
(D) No improvement

193. The countries used to tell King how efficient an administrator he was all day long.
(A) The courtiers all day long used to tell the King how efficient an administrator he was.
(B) The countries used all day long to tell the King how efficient an administrator he was.
(C) The countries used to tell the King all day long how efficient an administrator he was.
(D) No improvement.

194. Every Saturday I go out for shopping
(A) for shops. (B) To shopping
(C) For shop (D) No improvement

195. We had a grand party and we enjoyed very much.
(A) We had a grand party and enjoyed very much.
(B) We had a grand party to enjoy very much.
(C) We had a grand party and we enjoyed ourselves very much.
(D) No improvement.

Directions: In Question Nos. 196 to 200, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

196. An inscription on a tomb
(A) espionage (B) epilogue
(C) epitaph (D) elegy

Answers:
151 (d) 152 (a) 153 (c) 154 (b) 155 (a) 156 (a) 157 (c) 158 (a) 159 (b) 160 (d) 161 (c) 162 (b) 163 (d) 164 (c) 165 (b) 166 (a) 167 (b) 168 (a) 169 (b) 170 (a) 171 (a) 172 (b) 173 (c) 174 (d) 175 (a) 176 (c) 177 (a) 178 (b) 179 (c) 180 (d) 181 (b) 182 (d) 183 (c) 184 (a) 185 (c) 186 (b) 187 (a) 188 (b) 189 (b) 190 (d) 191 (c) 192 (b) 193 (c) 194 (d) 195 (c) 196 (c)

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SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam Tier II Syllabus

April 9th, 2012

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL SYLLABUS FOR TIER-II OF THE EXAMINATION :
Paper-I :
Quantitative Ability : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use ofnumbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers, decimals ,fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion,Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart

Paper-II :
English Language & Comprehsion :Questions in this components will be designed totest the candidate’s understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error, fill in the blanks, synonyms, antonyms, spelling/detecting mis-spelt words, idioms & phrases, one word substitution, improvement of sentences, active/passive voice of verbs, conversion into direct/indirect narration, shuffling of sentence parts, shuffling of sentences in a passage, cloze passage & comprehension passage.

Paper-III :
Statistics for Investigator Grade-II, Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation & Compiler in RGI. Collection Classification and Presentation of Statistical Data – Primary and Secondary data, Methods of data collection; Tabulation of data; Graphs and charts; Frequency distributions; Diagrammatic presentation of frequency distributions. Measures of Central Tendency- Common measures of central tendency – mean median and mode; Partition values- quartiles, deciles, percentiles. Measures of Dispersion- Common measures dispersion – range, quartile deviations, mean deviation and standard deviation; Measures of relative dispersion.
Moments, Skewness and Kurtosis – Different types of moments and their relationship; meaning of skewness and kurtosis; different measures of skewness and kurtosis.
Correlation and Regression – Scatter diagram; simple correlation coefficient; simple regression lines; Spearman’s rank correlation; Measures of association of attributes; Multiple regression; Multiple and partial correlation (For three variables only).
Probability Theory – Meaning of probability; Different definitions of probability; Conditional probability; Compound probability; Independent events; Bayes’ theorem.
Random Variable and Probability Distributions – Random variable; Probability functions; Expectation and Variance of a random variable; Higher moments of a random variable; Binomial , Poisson, Normal and Exponential distributions; Joint distribution of two random variable (discrete).
Sampling Theory – Concept of population and sample; Parameter and statistic, Sampling and non-sampling errors; Probability and non-probability sampling techniques(simple random sampling, stratified sampling, multistage sampling, multiphase sampling, cluster sampling, systematic sampling, purposive sampling, convenience sampling and quota sampling); Sampling distribution(statement only); Sample size decisions.
Statistical Inference – Point estimation and interval estimation, Properties of a good estimator, Methods of estimation (Moments method, Maximum likelihood method, Least squares method), Testing of hypothesis, Basic concept of testing, Small sample and large sample tests, Tests based on Z, t, Chi-square and F statistic, Confidence intervals.
Analysis of Variance – Analysis of one-way classified data and two-way classified data.
Time Series Analysis – Components of time series, Determinations of trend component by different methods, Measurement of seasonal variation by different methods.
Index Numbers - Meaning of Index Numbers, Problems in the construction of index numbers, Types of index number, Different formulae, Base shifting and splicing of index numbers, Cost of living Index Numbers, Uses of Index Numbers.

NOTE- I: (i)The Commission will have full discretion to fix separate minimum qualifying marks in each of the papers in Tier II and in the aggregate of all the papers separately for each category of candidates (viz. SC/ST/OBC/ including minority sub-quota /PH/ExS/General (UR) ). Only those candidates who qualify in all the papers as well as in the aggregate would be eligible to be considered for being called for Interview and/or Skill Test.

(ii)There will be different set of Questions for Visually Handicapped (VH) candidates in Paper-I-Quantitative Ability, which shall not have any component of Map/Graphs/Statistical Data/ Diagrams/Figures/Geometrical problems/Pie-chart etc. However, components of other papers will be the same as that for general candidates.

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SSC Combined Graduate level Examination Tier-I Syllabus

April 9th, 2012

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL TIER-I EXAMINATION SYLLABUS

A. General Intelligence & Reasoning : It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial orientation, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/Number Analogy, Figural Analogy, Semantic Classification, Symbolic/Number Classification, Figural Classification, Semantic Series, Number Series, Figural Series, Problem Solving, Word Building, Coding & de-coding, Numerical Operations, symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation, Space Visualization, Venn Diagrams, Drawing inferences, Punched hole/pattern –folding & un-folding, Figural Pattern – folding and completion, Indexing, Address matching, Date & city matching, Classification of centre codes/roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/numbers coding, decoding and classification, Embedded Figures, Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence, Social Intelligence, Other sub-topics, if any.

B. General Awareness : Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of every day observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy & Scientific Research.

C. Quantitative Aptitude : The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals ,fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion,Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.

D. English Comprehension : Candidates’ ability to understand correct English, his basic comprehension and writing ability, etc. would be tested.

The questions in Posts A,B & D will be of a level commensurate with the Essential Qualification prescribed for the post viz graduation and questions in Part C will be of 10+2 level.

NOTE -1 : Part C (Quantitative Aptitude) of Test booklet for Tier-I and Paper-I (Quantitative Abilities) of Tier-II will contain separate set of Questions for VH candidates only,( who have opted for assistance of scribe) which will not have components of Maps, Graphs, Statistical data, Diagram, Figures, Geometrical problems. However, components of other papers will be the same for other candidates.

NOTE – 2 : The Commission shall have the discretion to fix different minimum qualifying standards in each component of the Tier-I Examination taking into consideration among others, category-wise vacancies and category-wise number of candidates. Only those candidates, who have scored above the cut off marks fixed by the Commission would be required to appear in the Tier –II Examination.

NOTE -3 :Tier-I examination is used to screen the candidates for appearing in Tier-II examination for various papers which will be specifically required for different groups of posts. However, marks of such screened candidates in Tier-I will be taken into account for final ranking of candidates for selecting them for the interview/skill test and also final selection.

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Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level Exam Scheme

April 9th, 2012

SCHEME OF THE EXAMINATION FOR COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAMINATION
The Examination will be conducted in three tiers as indicated below:
Tier -I – Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)
Tier -II — Written Examination (Objective Multiple Choice Type)
Tier -III — Personality Test /Interview/Computer Proficiency Test or Skill Test
(wherever applicable).

Scheme of Examination for different posts will be as follows:

Tier I Examination:
A. General Intelligence + Reasoning – 50 marks
B. Gen.Awareness-50marks
C. Quantitative Aptitude – 50 marks
D. English Comprehension -50 marks
Total: 200 Marks
Duration: 02 hours
For VH: 2 hours 40 minutes

Tier II Examination:
I.Quantitative Abilities : 200 marks (100 Questions)
Duration: 2 hours
For VH: 2hours 40 minutes where eligible.
II.English Language & Comprehension: 200 marks
Total Marks : 400
Duration : 2 hours
For VH: 2 hours 40 minutes wherever eligible

Interview:
100 Marks

Proficiency /Skill Test:
a) Posts for which Interview is prescribed other than Statistical Investigator Grade-II:Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) for post of Assistant in CSS only
b) Posts for which no Interview is prescribed, other than Compile: No Interview Data Entry, Skill Test at Speed of 8000 key depression per hour for post of Tax Assistant

c) Statistical Investigator Grade-II : Tier 1 Exam Pattern as same as above, Tier II Exam Pattern will be change as follows:
Paper-I & II as above 400 marks Paper-III Statistics 200 marks, Interview 100 Marks: total 900 marks

NOTE: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Tier-I. In Tier-II, there will be negative marking of 0.25 marks in Paper-II and III and 0.50 marks in Paper-I for each wrong answer.

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SSC Asst Grade II and Typist (Hindi) Selection Procedure

October 29th, 2011

SELECTION PROCESS FOR AG-II AND TYPIST (HINDI):
A written examination comprising of two Papers as under will be conducted for AG-II and Typist (Hindi) posts (Post Code E and F).

Paper

Subject

Maximum Marks

Duration & Timing

Paper-I
(Objective Type)

(i)General Hindi (50 Questions)

(ii)General English (50 Questions)

(iii)General Intelligence (50 Questions)

(iv)General Awareness (50 Questions)

50

50

50

50

10.00 AM to 12.00 Noon. (2hrs 40 min for VH candidates).

Paper –II
(Conventional Type)

Translation – 2 passages, one each from Hindi to English and vice versa and an essay each in Hindi & English

200

2.00 PM to 4.00 PM.
(2hrs 40 min for VH candidates

Note: The Date of Examination for recruitment to these Posts will be 22.01.2012
Candidates applying for the post of Typists (Hindi) will need to take Paper-I only. Candidates will be shortlisted based on Paper-I and the shortlisted candidates will undergo a skill test in typing in Hindi which will be of qualifying nature.
Candidates applying for AG-II posts will be shortlisted for evaluation of Paper-II based on their marks in Paper-I and Paper-II of only the shortlisted candidates will be evaluated. Final selection will be on the basis of marks secured by the candidates in Paper I and II (200 and 200 marks).
Allocation of candidates to different zones will be done on the basis of merit cum option of zone and, thereafter to different posts within the zone. Seniority for all purposes will be maintained within the zone.
Syllabus and Model Papers

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SSC Asst Grade III General, Depot, Accounts and Technical Exam Scheme

October 29th, 2011

SELECTION PROCESS FOR GENERAL, DEPOT, ACCOUNTS AND TECHNICAL CADRES:
Selection for the posts will be based on a Written Examination which will be conducted by Staff Selection Commission. The examination will consist of two papers as detailed below for Post Codes A, B and D for General, Depot and Accounts Cadres. Candidates applying for Post Code C for [Technical Cadre] will appear in Paper-I and Paper-III. The examination in paper III will be of degree level. Paper I and II will be of Higher Secondary Level.

Paper

Subject

Maximum Marks

Duration & Timing

Paper – I
(Objective Type)

(a)General Intelligence (50 questions)

(b)General Awareness (50 questions)

(c)Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

(d)English Language (50 questions)

50

50

50

50

10.00 AM to 12.00 Noon (2 hrs)
10.00 AM to 12.40 PM for VH candidates

Paper-II (Objective Type)

(a)Quantitative Methods (50 questions)

(b)English Language & Comprehension (100 questions)

100

100

2.00 PM to 4.00 PM
(2 hrs)
2.00 PM to 4.40 PM for VH candidates

Paper-III (For Technical Cadre) (Objective Type)

Biological Sciences (200 questions)

200

10.00 AM to 12.00 Noon (2 hrs)
10.00 AM to 12.40 PM for VH Candidates.

For General, Depot, Accounts and Technical Cadres a Computer Proficiency Test (CPT), which will be of qualifying nature, with components of Word Processing and Excel will also be held for candidates shortlisted on the basis of Paper-I and Paper-II/ Paper-III. Qualifying marks in word processing may be prescribed by the SSC at its discretion for evaluation of Excel Scripts, in which a separate qualifying standard will be prescribed.
NOTE I: The Date of Examination for recruitment to these Posts will be on 05.02.2012 (Sunday) for Paper –I and Paper II and 04.2.2012 (Saturday) for Paper-III.
NOTE II: Paper I will be used for shortlisting the candidates whose papers II or III, as the case may be, will be evaluated.
NOTE III : Only those candidates who qualify in the Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) will be eligible to be considered for final selection. Final selection will be on the basis of marks secured by the candidates in Paper I and II (200 and 200 marks) for Post Codes A, B and D and will be on the basis of marks secured by the candidates in Paper I and III (200 and 200 marks) for Post Code C.
NOTE IV: Allocation of candidates to different zones will be done on the basis of merit cum option of zone and thereafter , to different posts within the zone. Seniority for all purpose will be maintained within the zone.

Syllabus and Model Papers

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Computer General Knowledge Questions For SSC Data Entry Operator Skill Test

October 28th, 2011

SSC Data Entry Operator Computer Knowledge Questions

Q1 The bank use……………. Device to minimize conversion process.
(a) Keyboard
(b) MICR
(c) OCR
(d) Scanner

Q2 ………………can’t be used for source of data automation.
(a) POS terminal
(b) OCR
(c) Keyboard
(d) UPC

Q3 Under which case will intranet be aneffective networking tool/s?
(a) In a distributed decision-making environment
(b) Where heterogeneous applications are involved
(c) In a centralised organization
(d) In a decentralisad organization

Q4 When an organization gives contract for development of software, it has to give data to the service provider. In Such cases, the ownership of data should be_________
(a) Transferred to the service provider
(b) With the client/organization that outsource services
(c) Shared by both parties
(d) Not transferred

Q5 A modem performs_________
(a) Modulation
(b) Demodulation
(c) Data compression
(d) All of these

Q6 Which of the following is NOT done by modem?
(a) Transmission Speed
(b) Data Accuracy
(b) Error detection and Correction
(d) Data Compression

Q7 A program coded in programming language is____________ .
(a) Target code
(b) Source code
(c) Block
(d) None of these

Q8 “Platform” in computer world means___________ .
(a) Computer hardware used
(b) Operating Systems used
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Q9 Which of these biometric tools use thermal sensors along with infrared rays for identification?
(a) Key stroke dynamics
(b) Lris\ Retinal scan
(c) Speech recognition
(d)Fingerprint scanning

Q10 what is incorrect about software?
(a) It can mamipulate computer
(b) It has programs, instructions
(c) It can be touched
(d) It can be touched

Q11 Disadvantage of distributed database is.
(a) Unreliability
(b) Easy implementation
(c) Insecurity
(d) High communication cost

Q12 which of the following transmission techniques let computer to alternatiyely send and receive data ?
(a) Simplex
(b) Half duplex
(c) Full duplex
(d) Multiplexing

Q13 What is NOT a fature of networking ?
(a) Reliability
(b) Greater storage space
(c) Connectivity
(d) All are features of networking

Q14 Taking back-up of a file against crash is a
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Curative measure
(c) Decisive measure
(d) None of these

Q15 A memory that is referred by its contents instead of physical address is called ________
(a) Associative memory
(b) Content addressable storage
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Q16 Most dangerous risk in leaking of information is :
(a) ready access to online terminals
(b) Online processing of data
(c) Ignorance about the existence of risk
(d) All of these

Q17 A camera is an
(a) Input device
(b) Can be either input or output
(c) Processing machine
(b) Output device

Q18 Using anti-virus software is
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Detective measure
(c) Corrective measure
(d) All the above

Q19 An online transaction is
(a) One that is done in real time
(b) Transaction done via internet
(c) One that is done via telephone
(d) None of these

Q20 A clerk in a bank has to access data n customer account. Logical access control for these users would be.
(a) Use of individual passwords
(b) Use of a Accounts Receivable Section password
(c) Use of individual passwords plus separate access passwords for customer data and product data
(d) Cann’t say

Q21 To stop unauthorized access to the computer system we should
(a) Have a trustworthy system administrator
(b) Have a good passwords policy
(c) Have a sound encryption policy
(d) All of the above

Q22 Which can not assure data accuracy in an application?
(a) Limit and reasonableness test
(b) Echo checking
(c) Control total
(d) None of these

Q23 Maximum storage space is available on
(a) CDs
(b) ROM
(c) Hard disks
(d) Floppies

Q24 Jon Von Neumann developed:
(a) First electronic chip flip flop
(b) Stored-program concept
(c) The first electronic computer
(d) None of these

Q25 Which of the following is single user computer with many features and good processing power?
(a) Minicomputer
(b) Workstation
(c) Macintosh
(d) None of these

Answers
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b

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