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UGC NET Question Papers June 2010

October 24th, 2011

General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude (Paper -I)
1. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher ?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity
(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive
(D) Content mastery and sociable

2. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with
(A) The children
(B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself
(D) The community

3. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level ?
(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5

4. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets
(B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue
(D) Worry

5. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.

6. A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian
(B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating
(D) Passive and active

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12.
The phrase “What is it like ?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space ? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe ? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind.

How are abstract images formed ? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them.

During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real. The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered.

Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly beaviour.

7. The problem raised in the passage reflects on
(A) thought process (B) human behaviour
(C) cultural perceptions (D) professional opinion

8. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind
(A) Observation of things (B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression through language (D) To gain knowledge

9. Concept means
(A) A mental image (B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form (D) All the above

10. The relation of Percept to Concept is
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Reflective (D) Absolute

11. In the passage, the earth is taken as
(A) The Globe (B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body (D) A Planet

12. Percept means
(A) Direct observation through the senses (B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum (D) An abstract image

13. Action research means
(A) A longitudinal research
(B) An applied research
(C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
(D) A research with socioeconomic objective

14. Research is
(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
(D) None of the above

15. A common test in research demands much priority on
(A) Reliability
(B) Useability
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above

16. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process ?
(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Identification of problem
(D) Searching for solutions to the problem

17. If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative style contributes more to institutional effectiveness ? This willbe an example of
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Research
(C) Applied Research
(D) None of the above

18. Normal Probability Curve should be
(A) Positively skewed
(B) Negatively skewed
(C) Leptokurtic skewed
(D) Zero skewed

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UGC NET Question Papers June 2010

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UGC NET Dec 2011 Online Registration Last Date 25th Oct 2011

October 22nd, 2011

UGC NET Dec 2011 Online Registration Last Date 25th Oct 2011

Important instructions to fill online application form for NET

Last Date of Application Form: Oct. 25, 2011
Last date for receiving the documents at the test center : Monday Oct. 31, 2011
Examination Date : Saturday; Dec. 24, 2011

applicable fee at nearest branch of State Bank of India

Category VH PH GEN OBC SC ST

Fee Required ( Rs.) 110 110 450 225 110 110

Click here to download Bank Challan

How To Apply:
Scan your passport (PP) size photograph in JPEG format. Make sure it should be 206 X 240 Pixel dimension (w X h) and less than 300kb.

Start the procedure to create login account by clicking on button – “Start procedure” and act accordingly.

Provide your personal and educational details to create your login account.

Upload your photograph. Before uploading the photograph, check that you are uploading the right PP size (206 X 240 Px) photograph of yourself.

Already registered candidates

Already registered candidates
Login by using your email id and password.

Help: if you have forgotten your concern password click on button “Forgot password? / Can’t access your account? Click here” and act accordingly.

Review your personal and educational details and proceed.
Hint: You may edit any detail(s), if required.

Review your photograph and update, if required.

To apply for UGC NET, click on button – “Apply for NET”. Provide required information and act accordingly.

Important Note:
a)There are four steps for online submission of application. Complete all four steps.
b)Kindly take printout of the Application Form (filled) (2 copies), Admission Card, Attendance Slip and submit to the test centre along with the necessary enclosure as per the details given in the Notification

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UGC NET Previous Year Question Papers

October 20th, 2011

UGC NET Previous Year Question Papers

UGC NET December 2010 Question Papers
General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude (Paper -I)
1. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms ?
(A) Socio-economic Status
(B) Marital Status
(C) Numerical Aptitude
(D) Professional Attitude

2. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of dengue fever. His research would be classified as
(A) Descriptive Survey
(B) Experimental Research
(C) Case Study
(D) Ethnography

3. The term ‘phenomenology’ is associated with the process of
(A) Qualitative Research
(B) Analysis of Variance
(C) Correlational Study
(D) Probability Sampling

4. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study
(A) Vocational Interest
(B) Professional Competence
(C) Human Relations
(D) Achievement Motivation

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10 :
It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all nationalist movements, was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented the natural historical stage of development, and to consider it or to criticise it as a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that movement and the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful movements which he launched through the National Congress. Through nation-wide action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in doing so, and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied and crushed by every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a people with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.

Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village and every bazaar hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and hopes that filled the people. That was an amazing psychological change. The time was ripe for it, of course, and circumstances and world conditions worked for this change. But a great leader is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and conditions. Gandhi was that leader, and he released many of the bonds that imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who experienced it can ever forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that came over the Indian people.

Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could reach the heart of the masses, while groups with a more advanced ideology functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those conditions and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.

It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not think in terms of the conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences. But the action he has indulged and taught the people has inevitably raised mass consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital. Gandhi and the Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they indulge in. But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and activities. In the case of very exceptional person like Gandhi the question of personality becomes especially important in order to understand and appraise him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to him by the British Government or others has been an insult to India and her people.
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UGC NET Paper II & Paper III Question Paper Held in December 2010

October 13th, 2011

UGC NET COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS PAPER-II DECEMBER 2010

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all the questions.

1. The number of integers between 1 and 250 that are divisible by 2, 5 and 7 is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 8

2. An undirected graph possesses an eulerian circuit if and only if it is connected and its vertices are
(A) all of even degree
(B) all of odd degree
(C) of any degree
(D) even in number

3. A partially ordered set is said to be a lattice if every two elements in the set have
(A) a unique least upper bound
(B) a unique greatest lower bound
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) none of the above

4. The minimum number of edges in a connected graph with ‘n’ vertices is equal to
(A) n (n – 1)
(B) n (n – 1) / 2
(C) n
(D) n – 1

5. Consider the problem of connecting 19 lamps to a single electric outlet by using extension cords each of which has four outlets. The number of extension cords required is
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7

6. The decimal number equivalent of (4057.06)8 is
(A) 2095.75
(B) 2095.075
(C) 2095.937
(D) 2095.0937

8. An astable multivibrator has
(A) one stable state (B) two stable states (C) no stable states (D) none of these

9. 12-bit 2’s complement of –73.75 is
(A) 01001001.1100
(B) 11001001.1100
(C) 10110110.0100
(D) 10110110.1100

10. Encoding of data bits 0011 into 7-bit even Parity Hamming Code is
(A) 0011110
(B) 0101110
(C) 0010110
(D) 0011100

11. How many of the following declarations are correct ? int z = 7.0; double void = 0.000; short array [2] = {0, 1, 2}; char c = “\n”;
(A) None
(B) One is correct
(C) Two are correct
(D) All four are correct

12. The value of the following expression (13 / 4 * 3) % 5 + 1 is
(A) 5.75
(B) 2.95
(C) 1.4875
(D) 5

13. Which one of the following will set the value of y to 5 if x has the value 3, but not otherwise ?
(A) if (x = 3) y = 5
(B) if x = = 3 (y = 5)
(C) if (x = = 3); y = 5
(D) if (x = = 3) y = 5

14. Which one of the following sentences is true ?
(A) The body of a while loop is executed at least once.
(B) The body of a do … while loop is executed at least once.
(C) The body of a do … while loop is executed zero or more times.
(D) A for loop can never be used in place of a while loop.

15. “Black” refers in the “Black-box” testing means
(A) Characters of the movie “Black”
(B) I – O is hidden
(C) Design is hidden
(D) Users are hidden

16. In generalisation, the differences between members of an entity is
(A) maximized
(B) minimized
(C) both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these

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UGC NET General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude (Paper 1) December 2010 Paper

October 13th, 2011

UGC NET General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude (Paper -I) December 2010 Paper.

1. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms ?
(A) Socio-economic Status
(B) Marital Status
(C) Numerical Aptitude
(D) Professional Attitude

2. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of dengue fever. His research would beclassified as
(A) Descriptive Survey
(B) Experimental Research
(C) Case Study
(D) Ethnography

3. The term ‘phenomenology’ is associated with the process of
(A) Qualitative Research
(B) Analysis of Variance
(C) Correlational Study
(D) Probability Sampling

4. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study
(A) Vocational Interest
(B) Professional Competence
(C) Human Relations
(D) Achievement Motivation

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10 :
It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all nationalist movements, was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented the natural historical stage of development, and to consider it or to criticise it as a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that movement and the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful movements which he launched through the National Congress. Through nation-wide action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in doing so, and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied and crushed by every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a people with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.

Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village and every bazaar hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and hopes that filled the people. That was an amazing psychological change. The time was ripe for it, of course, and circumstances and world conditions worked for this change. But a great leader is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and conditions. Gandhi was that leader, and he released many of the bonds that imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who experienced it can ever forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that came over the Indian people.

Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could reach the heart of the masses, while groups with a more advanced ideology functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those conditions and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.

It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not think in terms of the conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences. But the action he has indulged and taught the people has inevitably raised mass consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital. Gandhi and the Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they indulge in. But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and activities. In the case of very exceptional person like Gandhi the question of personality becomes especially important in order to understand and appraise him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to him by the British Government or others has been an insult to India and her people.

5. Which one of the following is true of the given passage ?
(A) The passage is a critique of Gandhi’s role in Indian movement for independence.
(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in India’s freedom movement.
(C) The author is neutral on Gandhi’s role in India’s freedom movement.
(D) It is an account of Indian National Congress’s support to the working-class movement.

6. The change that the Gandhian movement brought among the Indian masses was
(A) Physical
(B) Cultural
(C) Technological
(D) Psychological

7. To consider the nationalist movement or to criticise it as a working-class movement was wrong because it was a
(A) historical movement
(B) voice of the Indian people
(C) bourgeois movement
(D) movement represented by Gandhi

8. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he could
(A) preach morality
(B) reach the heart of Indians
(C) see the conflict of classes
(D) lead the Indian National Congress

9. Groups with advanced ideology functioned in the air as they did not fit in with
(A) objective conditions of masses
(B) the Gandhian ideology
(C) the class consciousness of the people
(D) the differences among masses

10. The author concludes the passage by
(A) criticising the Indian masses
(B) the Gandhian movement
(C) pointing out the importance of the personality of Gandhi
(D) identifying the sorrows of millions of Indians

11. Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication – points are referred to as
(A) Networked media
(B) Connective media
(C) Nodal media
(D) Multimedia

12. The information function of mass communication is described as
(A) diffusion (B) publicity
(C) surveillance (D) diversion

13. An example of asynchronous medium is
(A) Radio (B) Television
(C) Film (D) Newspaper

14. In communication, connotative words are
(A) explicit (B) abstract
(C) simple (D) cultural

15. A message beneath a message is labelled as
(A) embedded text
(B) internal text
(C) inter-text
(D) sub-text

16. In analog mass communication, stories are
(A) static
(B) dynamic
(C) interactive
(D) exploratory

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words ALWAYS : NEVER and then select from the following pair of words which have a similar relationship :
(A) often : rarely
(B) frequently : occasionally
(C) constantly : frequently
(D) intermittently : casually

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence :
52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27 (B) 34
(C) 43 (D) 48

19. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then PAT is written in the same code as
(A) 30 (B) 37
(C) 39 (D) 41

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set :
AF : IK : : LQ : ?
(A) MO (B) NP
(C) OR (D) TV

21. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236 ?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

22. In an examination, 35% of the total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20% in both. The percentage of those who passed in both subjects is
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40

23. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow ? Statements :
I. Some flowers are red.
II. Some flowers are blue. Conclusions :
(a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.
(b) Some flowers are both red
and blue.
(A) Only (a) follows.
(B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow.
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.

24. If the statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is true, which of the following statements are false ?
(i) No students are intelligent.
(ii) Some students are intelligent.
(iii) Some students are not intelligent.
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) only

25. A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called
(A) Deductive Reasoning
(B) Inductive Reasoning
(C) Abnormal Reasoning
(D) Transcendental Reasoning

26. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation – two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck and a duck between two ducks ?
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 4 (D) 3

27. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades.
(i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.
(ii) Miss B sits right to the barber
(iii) The washerman sits right to the barber
(iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C What are the trades of A and B ?
(A) Tailor and barber
(B) Barber and cook
(C) Tailor and cook
(D) Tailor and washerman

28. Which one of the following methods serve to measure correlation between two variables ?
(A) Scatter Diagram
(B) Frequency Distribution
(C) Two-way table
(D) Coefficient of Rank Correlation

29. Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP) ?
(A) MTNL
(B) BSNL
(C) ERNET India
(D) Infotech India Ltd.

30. The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols
(A) 0 – 7
(B) 0 – 9 , A – F
(C) 0 – 7, A – F
(D) None of these

31. The binary equivalent of (–15)10 is (2’s complement system is used)
(A) 11110001
(B) 11110000
(C) 10001111
(D) None of these

32. 1 GB is equal to
(A) 230 bits
(B) 230 bytes
(C) 220 bits
(D) 220 bytes

33. The set of computer programs that manage the hardware/software of a computer is called
(A) Compiler system
(B) Operation system
(C) Operating system
(D) None of these

34. S/MIME in Internet technology stands for
(A) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(B) Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
(C) Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(D) Simple Multimedia Internet Mail Extension

35. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of Government of India ?
(A) Solar power
(B) Waste to energy conversion
(C) Afforestation
(D) Nuclear energy

36. The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking water should not exceed
(A) 500 mg/L (B) 400 mg/L
(C) 300 mg/L (D) 200 mg/L

37. ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by
(A) Arundhati Roy
(B) Medha Patkar
(C) Ila Bhatt
(D) Sunderlal Bahuguna

38. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are
(A) SO2 and O3
(B) SO2 and NO2
(C) HCHO and PAN
(D) SO2 and SPM

Click Here For Download UGC NET General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude (Paper -I) December 2010 Paper

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UGC NET General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude (Paper -I) Syllabus

October 13th, 2011

SUBJECT : GENERAL PAPER ON TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE

The main objective is to assess the teaching and research capabilities of the candidates. Therefore, the test is aimed at assessing the teaching and general/research aptitude as well as their awareness. They are expected to possess and exhibit cognitive abilities. Cognitive abilities include comprehension, analysis, evaluation, understanding the structure of arguments and deductive and inductive reasoning. The candidates are also expected to have a general awareness and knowledge of sources of information. They should be aware of interaction between people, environment and natural resources and their impact on quality of life. The details are given in the following sections:

NOTE :
i) Each section gets equal weightage : five questions and 10 marks from each section.
ii) Whenever pictorial questions are set for the sighted candidates a passage followed by equal number of questions should be set for the visually handicapped candidates.

1. Teaching Aptitude
Teaching : Nature, objectives, characteristics and basic requirements;
Learner’s characteristics;
Factors affecting teaching;
Methods Teaching
Teaching aids;
Evaluation systems.

II. Research Aptitude
Research : Meaning, characteristics and types;
Steps of research;
Methods of research;
Research Ethics;
Paper, article, workshop, seminar, conference and symposium;
Thesis writing: its characteristics and format.

III. Reading Cumprehension
A passage to be set with questions to be answered.

IV. Communication
Communication : Nature, characteristics, types, barriers and effective classroom commtmication.
Reasoning (Including Mathematical)
Number series; letter series; codes;
Relationships; classification.

VI. Logical Reasoning
Understanding the structure of arguments;
Evaluating and distinguishing deductive and inductive reasoning;
Verbal analogies : Word analogy —- Applied analogy;
Verbal classification;
Reasoning Logical Diagrams : Simple diagrammatic relationship, multi-diagrammatic relationship;
Venn diagram; Analytical Reasoning.

VII. Data Integretation
Sources, acquisition and interpretation of data;.
Quantitative and qualitative data;
Graphical representation and mapping of data.

VIII. Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
ICT : meaning, advantages, disadvantages and uses;
General abbreviations and terminology;
Basics of internet and e-mailing.

IX. People and Environment
People and environment interaction;
Sources of pollution;
Pollutants and their impact on human life, exploitation of natural and energy resources;
Natural hazards and mitigation

X. Higher Education System : Governance, Polity And Administration
Structure of the institutions for higher learning and research in India; formal and distance education; professional/technical and general education; value education: governance, polity and administration; concept, institutions and their interactions.

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UGC NET Subjects and Respective Codes

October 13th, 2011

The list of NET subjects along with their respective codes is as given below:

Subject Code Name of the Subject

01 Economics

02 Political Science

03 Philosophy

04 Psychology

05 Sociology

06 History

07 Anthropology

08 Commerce

09 Education

10 Social Work

11 Defence and Strategic Studies

12 Home Science

14 Public Administration

15 Population Studies*

16 Music

17 Management

18 Maithili

19 Bengali

20 Hindi

21 Kannada

22 Malayalam

23 Oriya

24 Punjabi

25 Sanskrit

26 Tamil

27 Telugu

28 Urdu

29 Arabic

30 English

31 Linguistics

32 Chinese

33 Dogri

34 Nepali

35 Manipuri

36 Assamese

37 Gujarati

38 Marathi

39 French

40 Spanish

41 Russian

42 Persian

43 Rajasthani

44 German

45 Japanese

46 Adult Education/ Continuing Education/ Andragogy/ Non Formal Education

47 Physical Education

49 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies

50. Indian Culture

55 Labour Welfare/Personnel Management/Industrial Relations/ Labour and Social Welfare/Human Resource Management

58 Law

59 Library and Information Science

60 Buddhist, Jaina, Gandhian and Peace Studies

62 Comparative Study of Religions

63 Mass Communication and Journalism

65 Performing Arts – Dance/Drama/Theatre

66 Museology & Conservation

67 Archaeology

68 Criminology

70 Tribal and Regional Language/Literature

71 Folk Literature

72 Comparative Literature

73 Sanskrit Traditional Subjects (including Jyotisha/Sidhanta Jyotisha/ Navya Vyakarna/ Vyakarna/ Mimamsa/ Navya Nyaya/ Sankhya Yoga/ Tulanatmaka Darsana/ Shukla Yajurveda/ Madhva Vedanta/ Dharma Sastra/ Sahitya/ Purana-itihasa/Agama/Advaita Vedanta)

74 Women Studies

79 Visual Arts (including Drawing & Painting/Sculpture/ Graphics/Applied Art/History of Art)

80 Geography

81 Social Medicine & Community Health

82 Forensic Science

83 Pali

84 Kashmiri

85 Konkani

87 Computer Science and Applications

88 Electronic Science

89 Environmental Sciences

90 International and Area Studies

91 Prakrit

92 Human Rights and Duties

93 Tourism Administration and Management

94 Bodo

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UGC National Eligibility Test (NET) English Syllabus

October 11th, 2011

Subject : ENGLISH
Syllabus and Sample Questions

Note :
There will be two question papers. Paper -II and Paper – III ( Parts -A & B ). Paper – ll will cover 50 Objective Type Questions ( Multiple choice, Matching type, True / False. Assertion Reasoning type ) carrying 100 marks. Paper III will have two Parts – A and B ; Paper- III(A) will have 10 Short Essay type questions ( 300 words ) carrying 16 marks each. In. it there will be one question with internal choice from each unit ( i.e. 10 questions from 10 units Total marks will be 160 ). Paper – lll (B) will be compulsory and there will be one question from each of the Electives. The candidate will attempt only one question ( one Elective only in 800 words ) carrying 40 marks. Total marks of Paper- III will be 200.

PAPER – II
1 . Chaucer to Shakespeare
2. Jacobean to Restoration Periods
3. Augustan Age : 18th Century Literature
4. Romantic Period
5. Victorian Period
6. Modern Period
7. Contemporary Period
8. American and other non-British Literatures
9. Literary Theory and Criticism
10. Rhetoric and Prosody

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UGC NET Paper III Pattern

October 10th, 2011

LATEST STRUCTURE OF PAPE-III
From june 2010 UGC-NET Onwords

SECTION I:
Essay writing – two questions with internal choice on general themes and contemporary, theoretical or of disciplinary relevance may be given. The candidate is expected to write up to 500 words for each question of 20 marks (2 Q X 20 M = 40 Marks). In case the questions are based on electives, the choices should have questions from each elective, otherwise all choices should be of general nature. common to all candidates. In case ot science subjects like Computer Science and Applications, Environmental Sciences, Electronic Science etc. two questions carrying 20 marks each may be given in place of essay type questions. The questions in this section should be numbered as 1 and 2

SECTION- II:
Three extended answer based questions to test the analytical ability of the candidate are to be asked on the major specialization/electives. Questions will be asked on all major specialization/electives and the candidates may be asked to choose one specialization/electives and answer the three questions. There is to be no Intemel choice. Each question will be answered in up to 300 words and shall carry 15 marks each (3 Q x 15 M = 45 Marks). where there is no specialization/electives, 3 questions may be set across the syllabus. The questions in this section should be numbered from 3 to 5.

SECTION-III:
Nine questions may be asked across the syllabus. The questions will be definitional or seeking particular information and are to be answered in up to 50 words each. For science subjects as mentioned in section-1, short numerical/computational problems may be considered. Each question will carry 10 marks (9 Q X 10 M = 90 Marks}. There should be no intenal choice The questions in this section should be numbered from 6 to 14.

SECTION-IV:
It requires the candidates to answer questions from a given text ol around 200 – 300 words taken from the works of a known thinker/author. Five carelulty considered spcoilic questions are to be asked on the given text:. requiring an answer in up to 30 words each. This section carries 5 questions ot 5 marks each (5 Q X 5 M = 25 Marks). In the case of science scbjects, a theoretical/numerical problem may be set These questions arc meant to lest critical thinking, ability to comprehend and apply knowledge one possesses. Questions in this section should be numbered as 15 to 19

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UGC NET December 2011 Mathematics Model Paper

October 8th, 2011

This Test Booklet will contain 120 (“20 Part “A”+40 Part B+60 Part C”) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) Both in Hindi and English. Candidates are required to answer 15 in “part A”, 25 in “Part B” and 20 questions in “Part C” respectively (No. of questions to attempt may vary from exam to exam). In case any candidate answers more than 15, 25 and 20 questions in Part A, B and C respectively only first 15, 25 and 20 questions in Parts A, B and C respectively will be evaluated. Each questions in “Part A” carries two marks, “Part B” three marks and “Part C” 4.75 marks respectively. There will be negative marking @ 0.5 marks in “Part A” and 0.75 in “Part B”‟ for each wrong answers. Below each question in “Part A”‟ and “Part B”, four alternatives or responses are given. Only one of these alternatives is the “CORRECT” answer to the question. “Part C” shall have one or more correct options. Credit in a question shall be given only on identification of ALL the correct options in “Part C”. No credit shall be allowed in a question if any incorrect option is marked as correct answer. No partial credit is allowed.

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UGC NET Syllabus and Papers

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